mpark
Aug 27 2002, 02:14 PM
Here's what I hope will be a quickie.
Does 4.50% of pay plus 5.70% of excess of $16,000.00 pass the "excess can't be more than 2x the base rule?"
Thanks.
Mike Preston
Aug 27 2002, 02:45 PM
Not as far as I can tell. Was this a trick question? See 1.401(l)-2(B)(2)(i). I suppose if the formula you mention is an allocation formula and not a contribution formula and the amount contributed is just enough to give folks 4.5% + 4.5% above $16,000 it might satisfy the general test on contributions. But then again, I seem to recall that the general test doesn't allow any integration level other than the wage base. Nonetheless, the resulting contributions might still satisfy the general test on benefits.