Gary
May 14 2003, 05:44 PM
A plan computes lump sum using the gatt basis.
The plan uses the greater lump sum amount under gatt or a basis that uses 6% for lump sums under 3,500.
If that is the case should the over 3,500 lump sums also mandate that the amount be compared to the 6% basis since it is done for lump sums under 3,500?
Any thoughts?
Gary
Mike Preston
May 14 2003, 11:48 PM
Should is a funny word to use in this context. I would certainly use "normally", though. I guess it would depend on whether the IRS approved language that allowed use of GATT rates as the plan's rates for all distributions where the lump sum exceeds $3,500.
By the way, the current threshold is $5,000, not $3,500. It may therefore be that something you are looking at is a bit out of date.
Harry O
May 15 2003, 06:50 AM
There is nothing inherently wrong with this approach, assuming the 6% alternative was never extended to lump sums in excess of $3,500 in the past (and then improperly amended out of the plan).
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