terric
Apr 23 2004, 03:12 PM
Is it a prohibited transaction if an owner makes a contribution to his individual account under a profit sharing plan during the plan year, but does not make any contribution to his employees' accounts?
WDIK
Apr 23 2004, 03:20 PM
I think I would classify it as discriminatory.
pax
Apr 23 2004, 04:37 PM
How about a violation of the plan terms?