During my parents marriage, my father worked for a large US based company through which he could purchase stock. When he left that corporation 20 years ago, he and my mother moved back to the country of their birth. The country has a strict community property provision in its laws so as to consider that all stock would be jointly owned. It also has provisions in the estate laws whereby if no will exists, all heirs would have equal rights to the property in the estate. Thus, 50% of the stock would be considered part of the estate of the deceased and that 50% would be divided amonst the heirs.
My mother died three years ago and my father is trying hard not to reconcile her estate. His mistress at the time had moved in with him shortly after my mother's passing (they have not married). She is from a different country which is well known for younger women (in this case 40) finding older wealthy men (in this case 74) and disappearing with the man's money. Because of this, the children have decided to force the settlement so that the estate portion would be "saved" but my father keeps delaying things.
We put an "embargo" on the stock, which is serviced through a company in Rhode Island so that the money could not "disappear" which other assets have done over the last 3 years.
We now wonder if he will file suit against the RI company to cash in the stock, circumventing the laws in the country where the embargo is held and the testimony he gave to the judge in last year's hearing about his use of funds.
So the question is, based on this, in the US are there any "estate" rights to stock purchased under a company stock plan? Do the laws of the country where the individuals live have any bearing on the ownership?