QUOTE (' date='Jun 2 2000, 06:41 PM)

Employer is reducing staff by about 13%. He wants to 100% vest those leaving. Can the employer be more generous than the 20% rule? Could the document define a partial termination as a 10% reduction?
[This message has been edited by Richard Anderson (edited 06-02-2000).]
I don’t think so, after Revenue Ruling 2007-43 anyway. See that. A 20% presumption is used unless regular turnover of 20%+ is routine.
Notes:
The testing period is generally the plan year but can be something else if the event is longer.
Denominator: participants who were employees (include those who entered during the plan year as made clear by "employees who became participants during the applicable period" in Revenue Ruling 2007-43).
Numerator: Participating employees who left, excluding nonparticipants, former employees, those who terminated due to death or disability, those who retired after NRD, and those who were rehired "soon" (see Halliburton 1993 which is still referenced & I believe still decent guidance). "Affected" employees are employer-initiated terminations but "an employee's severance from employment is employer-initiated even if caused by an event outside of the employer's control, such as severance due to depressed economic conditions."