Suppose a client is over 71 and has a couple IRAs and needs to take a distribution (and does annual recalculation so is not locked into a regular distribution). The client now intends to convert the smaller IRA to a Roth and pay income tax yet in this year on the conversion amount. Does such action count toward satisfying the age 70 1/2 required distribution?
Conflicting thoughts: No, because it is a conversion rather than a distribution. Yes, because money comes out and the IRS collects income tax so they should be happy.
I looked quickly, but did not find any written guidance to settle the debate.
Steve Hample