I'm trying to do a realistic comparison of converting or not converting to a Roth and need to know what approach is most commonly used by planning/tax professionals to equalize the performance of the IRA and the taxable accounts.
I realize that when evaluating a Roth conversion it's mandatory that the IRA and the Taxable accounts' pre-tax, composite performances (interest, growth, dividends, distributions, etc.) are the same. That is, if the IRA's overall performance is less than the taxable account, it's an unrealistic bias against the conversion, and if it's more it's an unrealistic bias favoring the conversion. So, for a meaningful evaluation of converting vs. not converting, both accounts must have the same composite performance.
What I'm really struggling with is, what assumptions/changes do others commonly make to the taxable account to equalize the performance of the two accounts?
There are two obvious answers. One straightforward answer is that if the taxable account consists of ONLY stocks and funds- the composite percentage of the stocks and funds growths plus dividends plus distributions should be the same as that for the composite IRA account.
But for my case the taxable account has tax-free, US government paper, corporate bonds and preferred stock, and it's composite performance is less than my IRA account's (I understand that this is a dumb situation that should be fixed regardless of the conversion issue). So what approach is most commonly used/recommended by pros to equalize the composite performance of the two accounts by changes to the taxable account? Should I simply increase the assumed growth of the stocks and funds, or "sell" all of the tax-free, US stuff, and bonds and "buy" more stocks and funds with the proceeds, assume that the taxable account has the same equities as the IRA account, or ?????
Thanks for any help offered.