newFSA
Jul 23 2008, 07:37 PM
The MRD paid in 2007 (for accrual in 2006) for a participant was incorrect. It was calculated using the account balance method which I believe is now inappropriate for use after 2005.
Whats the remedial action for incorrect MRD distributions. What kind of taxes/penalties etc apply?
Thanks
Sieve
Jul 23 2008, 07:48 PM
Without figuring out why the MRD might have been incorrect, it can be corrected by the plan sponsor through a filing with the IRS under the EPCRS Voluntary Correction Program (VCP). The VCP filing also can request that the 50% excise tax be waived.
AndyH
Jul 24 2008, 01:40 PM
Regardless of what you do with the penalty, correcting it is the first step, IMHO.
Has anyone ever heard of the IRS actually assessing the 50% penalty? I have not.
tymesup
Jul 26 2008, 12:55 PM
ASPPA Journal, summer issue, interview with Joyce Kahn, excise tax under 4974 for 401(a)(9) violation - "In the case of employees other than 10% owners, if an employer requests it, we automatically waive it. In the case of a 10% owner, then we need some justification ..."
Sieve
Jul 27 2008, 07:59 PM
For what it's worth, I have applied for and received a waiver of the excise tax for a 100% owner of a company (with about 75 employees) under VCP. He missed MRDs for 9 straight years!
jjren
Aug 22 2008, 10:16 AM
QUOTE (Sieve @ Jul 27 2008, 07:59 PM)

For what it's worth, I have applied for and received a waiver of the excise tax for a 100% owner of a company (with about 75 employees) under VCP. He missed MRDs for 9 straight years!
Sieve,
I realize this is an old thread, but if you're out there could you share your explanation for the cause of the MRD failure. I have been asked to prepare a VCP filing for a substantial owner who missed 6 years of payments.
Thanks
Sieve
Aug 22 2008, 11:06 AM
jjren - Sent description offline through PM.
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