Hi Everyone,
I need some help in properly interpreting the use of the MDIB Tables involving a RMD calculation.
Assume the following: An IRA owner age 70 1/2 (attained age of 70)and a non-spose beneficiary with an attained age of 42.
IRA owner elects the "joint life expectncy" option and the "Term Certain" method on BOTH individuals before the first RMD.
According to MDIB rules, the non-spouse beneficiary is "age adjusted" to appear to be age 60 for RMD calculation purposes. The life expectancy factor used for the first Distribution Calendar Year's RMD is 26.2 as taken from the MDIB Table (after compasrison with the standard J/L/E tables on an unadjusted age basis).
Here's the question. For subsequent RMD's in future years, is the original divisor of 26.2:
1. Reduced by one for each elapsed year (to reflect the "Term Certain" election on both lives made by the owner) resutling in a divisor of 25.2 for the second year, 24.2 for the following year and so on...
OR
2. Newly determined directly from the MDIB Table for each subsequent year resulting in the divisor of 25.3 for the second year, 24.4 for the following year, etc.
Concensus of opinion is that option #2 applies (even though using this method acutally introduces an element of "life expectancy recalculation" on the non-spouse beneficiary which is prohibited by the RMD Regs).
As one person told me, "The MDIB is a "table" and not a "method" so use it and don't think too much about it. Its how the IRS chose to implement MDIB rules."
The differences are subtle but important to understand especially as balances for RMD's skyrocket and people become more sophisticated about their options.
So if any of you have some factual information on this aspect of RMD's and MDIB's, I'd welcome hearing from you by e-mail on posted on the list.
Confused? I am.
Thanks
David H.