Guest KD40

Required Minimum Distribution Question

2 posts in this topic

Can someone answer the below question regarding RMD's?

A father works at a company in which he has no ownership, but his sons do, and they are greater than 5% owners. The father is 75 years of age and is still a full-time employee. Is he required to take a RMD payment or can he delay this payment till he terms? Was uncertain if the family attribution rules related to RMD payments.

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The 318 attribution rules apply and the father is considered owning the sons' shares. Thus, he must take RMD's.

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