Floridaattorney Posted August 7, 2008 Share Posted August 7, 2008 Employer wants to set up deferred comp agreement where it agrees to pay 10% of company's fair market value to employee on the first of certain specified events in the future. Fmv is to be determined by company's cpa or appraiser and must be agreed to by the employee or an arbitration process will be initiated. Would that be a 'determinable amount' under 1.409-3(i)? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
vebaguru Posted August 8, 2008 Share Posted August 8, 2008 I don't see why not. However, the legislation doesn't necessarily make sense. For an interesting perspective on 409A, try Einstein Theory of Tax. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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