KimBoyd1105 Posted December 15, 2015 Share Posted December 15, 2015 If a plan adds a match with a set formula mid year and begins deposits on a per payroll basis, but does NOT sign and execute the document - are the match contributions considered ineligible since the document was not properly executed and therefore Match contributions were not a feature of the plan? Can I get a citation for the answer? Can't seem to find it. In my opinion it is an operational and document failure. Thanks. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ETA Consulting LLC Posted December 15, 2015 Share Posted December 15, 2015 IRC 401(a)(1) Plans must operate pursuant to their written terms. If it's not written (and executed) into the terms of the plan, then on what basis would you have for doing it? Good Luck! CPC, QPA, QKA, TGPC, ERPA Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Doghouse Posted December 15, 2015 Share Posted December 15, 2015 Is it really too late to amend the plan retroactive to the beginning of the year? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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