Draper55 Posted March 14, 2017 Share Posted March 14, 2017 Traditional db overfunded with eoy valuations terminates during 2016 and val date is moved to plan termination date. assume no cb or conts for simplicity. What would you call assets/(ft+nc) as of the val date if you were doing a separate aftap certification?; 2017 aftap? plan termination aftap? final aftap?..val date and thereafter aftap? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Mike Preston Posted March 14, 2017 Share Posted March 14, 2017 Unnecessary AFTAP? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Draper55 Posted March 14, 2017 Author Share Posted March 14, 2017 i had thought about something similar such as moot or pointless AFTAP; but since the number still exists on the schedule SB maybe it warrants a separate certification..... but, what exactly is it that I would be certifying? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
My 2 cents Posted March 15, 2017 Share Posted March 15, 2017 It would be my understanding that any AFTAPs to be certified would inevitably be based on valuing the liabilities using the funding relief segment rates. Absolutely no recognition whatsoever of how much money would really be needed to cover lump sums (which, for AFTAP purposes would be calculated using the IRS's substitution rule - use unisex 417(e) mortality and the relief segment rates to the extent that the plan does not calculate lump sums using a basis other than 417(e)) and/or annuity purchases. Always check with your actuary first! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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