Guest GNagler Posted March 6, 2001 Share Posted March 6, 2001 What are people's thoughts on a SEP that was established after 1996, where the SEP document itself provides the employer makes the contribution, as required by law, but there is a side agreement (perhaps one-sided or forced) where the employee agrees to forego income in exchange for the employer making a SEP contribution? Do others think this would run afoul of the SARSEP being illegal unless it existed already when the law changed? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Bill Berke Posted March 8, 2001 Share Posted March 8, 2001 I seem to remember that this is against the law. I would immediately check with a lawyer. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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