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Appalachian_Trail

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  1. How would you address this hypo? S is in a parent-sub controlled group with 6 subsidiaries: C, D, E, F, & G. S will sell to B all of S's assets in subs C through F. All of those subs' employees will work for B post-sale. At an uncertain future date, S will sell G's assets to B. At no point will S become part of B's controlled group. S participates in a multi-employer DC Plan with Z. They are the only two participating employers. S controls all aspects of the Plan. S owns a small stake in Z, but not enough to bring Z into S's controlled group. S's plan operates on a fiscal year, ending on 9/30. The plan uses a NEC SH. The plan will continue NEC contributions for the upcoming plan year. If S were to terminate its plan on 10/20, the date of closing, or shortly thereafter would it qualify for the IRC § 410(b)(6)(C) short final year exception for the NEC SH, despite no change in controlled group? Likewise, S will no longer own any part of Z as of 12/31. Does this change your analysis at all? I'm stumped on this because Treas. Reg. § 1.410(b)-2(f) states that an asset sale qualifies under 410(b)(6)(C), however Section 410(b)(6)(C) also states that a change in controlled group must occur for the exception to apply. It just does not make a lot of sense for an asset sale to qualify under 410(b)(6)(C) when asset sales infrequently result in controlled group changes, as the seller remains intact immediately post-closing. My hunch is that 410(b)(6)(C) does not apply for either the 10/20 asset sale because no change in controlled group will occur, and that the sale of S's interest in Z to Z's other owners does not alter this analysis.
  2. I have a client who was in the process of terminating their cash balance plan with their TPA. They got impatient and wanted to speed up the process. In 2024, they withdrew all the plan's funds from the plan's account and deposited the funds into their business bank account. They intended to distribute each participants' funds, in the proper amounts, from the operating account. Does anyone have experience correcting an error like this with the DOL and IRS? Could this be corrected under VFCP as a below-market interest rate loan to a party in interest? What do you think the proposed correction under VCP should look like? We have already advised them to transfer the funds bank into a trust account for the plan. Thanks!
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