Many thanks for these clarifications. It is very helpful.
The other issue I am grappling with is the determination of the value of my benefit, particularly the method to arrive at a lump sum payment. The cash balance account consists of, (a) the opening balance, which is the conversion of an annuity of a previous defined benefit plan to a lump sum present value, (b) annual pay credits, which in my case are not relevant, and © annual interest credits (at the 1-year TCM).
As I quoted earlier from the SPD, "you have the flexibility to take the benefit with you as a lump sum payment, or...annuity, etc." In the Payment Forms section of the SPD the text reads: "Single lump-sum payment. This optional form of payment pays your full account to you in a lump sum. No additional benefit is payable."
The problem is that the sponsor never communicated the value of the cash balance account in a manner that makes sense to me. In my opinion the value of my account over time could only go up - it consists of the opening balance and annual interest credits. Instead the sponsor publishes a 'one-time payment amount', which varies widely, and above all, in 2014 was about 13% lower than in 2013. The sponsor explained that this was due to actuarial factors such as benefit commencement dates and interest rates, indicating that the 30-year treasury rate in 2013 was lower than in 2014.
At the same time, the benefit value expressed as a single life annuity benefit published by the sponsor remained constant over the last five years, exact to the penny.
In the SPD, the text under Optional Payment Forms contains the following statement: "Keep in mind, if you are married and wish to elect an optional form of payment (equal to an actuarial value that is the equivalent to your single life annuity benefit), you will need to provide your written election, along with your spouse's written notarized consent."
If I take the single life annuity benefit amount and use my IRS life expectancy (18 years) and use the Minimum Present Value Segment rates (first segment and second segment), I arrive at a substantially higher lump sum amount than the one the sponsor has told me I am entitled to, i.e. the 'one-time payment' amount mentioned above.
It is a mystery to me how a supposedly ever increasing cash balance account converts to a constant single life annuity benefit, which is then discounted at the 30yr treasury rate which varies from year to year (and month to month). And, if this method is permitted in the plan, why do the IRS present value segment rates not come into play?
Any thoughts what to do?