Honestly, I'm not sure of their reason. I can guess that the employer did not always operate under Section 125. Also, at one point they were probably fully-insured, purchasing benefits from a traditional insurer. Somewhere along the line, they must have been convinced, perhaps by a broker, that not having open enrollment would limit adverse selection. They are now a self funded employer, and in that transition, might have adopted the flex approach as well. The lack of an open enrollment might be a leftover provision from years ago. My thinking is that their flex plan forces them to have open enrollment...