Luke:
I read your responses and not only 100% agree but I think your description of the PT rules as mental gymnastics is spot on! All too often, I end up drawing pictures and labeling each party in a transaction! That said, I feel like this transaction would be okay provided that the Plan Asset rules aren't triggered. I was thinking about it this way:
1) The Doctor/IRA's owner's investment in the REIT owned by the other unrelated doctors doesn't trigger a PT. The other doctors (presumably) aren't disqualified persons.
2) The REIT then invests in a building which rents space to the practice at FMV.
3) As long as the REIT investment doesn't exceed 25%, the Plan Asset rule isn't triggered and the entire transaction isn't a PT. However, if it is triggered, then REIT assets are considered plan assets and the deal with the doctors office in which he owns a small stake (i.e., the 2%) does create PT issues.
However, even if the Plan Asset rule is triggered, he may be alright given his small ownership position. I mean, the transaction (e.g., rental agreement) would be between the doctor's office and the REIT. in this situation, the REIT is a disqualified person. However, and obviously depending on the facts, his position in the doctor's group may NOT make it a disqualified person, again....allowing the transaction. Nevertheless, I'd rather not take that position if possible.
Does that sound right? What I'm not clear on, and maybe you can help, is whether the 2% stake is factored into our plan asset analysis? I feel like it wouldn't be, since we are determining ownership of the REIT and not the practice, but what do you think? Am I off on this any of this analysis?
Jeremy