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Going to submit a VCP for 401(k) plan where the company owner, age 84, has never taken RMDs. Plan has 80 participants but just the one owner needing RMDs. Any recent experiences calculating the correction with IRS? I did one of these a couple of years ago and IRS kept going back and forth on how to calculate the correction. I don't remember now what they finally accepted at that time, just hoping they have a more settled methodology today. Seems to me we'd calculate the RMD for each year required, bring it forward with earnings to the present. In calculating the RMD for each subsequent year we'd back out the cumulative RMD payable from the account balance. Thanks.
