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  1. So say you have a fairly large 401(k), 100's of employees, a few million dollars in deferrals ever year, $100k or so in deferrals each payroll period. CPA says that employee contributions should have been made, say, within 2 days of payroll date. That's reasonable. Most were, but some were made 3, 4, 5, or in one case 8 days later. Out of 24 payroll dates, maybe 10 have a problem. You calculate the lost interest and it is, say, in the 10's of dollars for each payroll, maybe $1,000 for the entire year. DOL's VFCP Notice says the correction is to contribute the "Lost Earnings," but does not elaborate further. So good, you contribute the $1,000. My question is, how do you allocate it? The lost earnings arguably should be allocated as of each payroll date that had a late contribution, to the accounts of the participants who deferred on that date, in proportion to their deferrals. This will result in hundreds of separate allocation amounts, many less than one dollar. The administrative expense of doing that may easily exceed the amount being allocated. And some of the participants will have left and already cleared out their accounts. Assuming your plan document can be interpreted to permit this and it passes nondiscrimination, can you do something different, like allocate per capita to anyone who (a) deferred during the applicable year, e.g. 2017, and (b) still has an account in the plan? I am aware of the recent EBSA regional office letter urging employers to use the formal VFCP process, even for small amounts, rather than self-correcting, so my question is not directly about that, although maybe that is involved because if you go through the VFCP process you could get your short-cut allocation method approved by EBSA? If you've heard this one before and it's got an answer, just point me to it. Thanks in advance.
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