Guest mgsaucedo Posted March 29, 2000 Posted March 29, 2000 I have an employee who worked for me part time for about a year. Then we hired him on a full time basis. What date do I use for his hire date?
Guest hank Posted March 30, 2000 Posted March 30, 2000 For employment law purposes, his hire date was the first day he worked for you for which he was paid compensation. He moved from part-time to full-time status, but his hire date did not change. If you are calculating service for purposes of employee benefit plans that don't include part time employees unless they reach a certain threshold (e.g., 1000 hours of service), his hire date is still the same but he may not have accumulated enough service as a part timer to gain access to the benefit plans. Generally, the date on which an employee (part time or full time)begins to participate in various types of employee benefit plans is referred to as the "entry date" or "participation date".
Guest CLKeown Posted March 30, 2000 Posted March 30, 2000 In my experience the hire date does remain the first day the employee began working. Currently I have two additional dates that I use from employment history tracking. The first is a status change date. Used whenever an employee changes from P/T to F/T, F/T to P/T, job title, FLSA status, etc. The second date that we use is a benefits eligibility date to denote when the employee became eligible to participate in the company benefits plans (i.e., 1,000 hours for 401(k) or 90 days for health insurance). In any case, the hire date does not change - unless he worked for you in a part-time capacity then terminated and was rehired. Carole
Sheila K Posted March 30, 2000 Posted March 30, 2000 We also use the original hire date when making these type of determinations. We have recently upgraded our health benefits contract so that our temp-to-hire employees become eligible immediately upon permanent hire. We require all TTH employees to work 90 days before making a permanent hire. With our last contract update, we requested that the 90 days served as a temp would count towards benefit eligibility. It is one of our weapons in battling turnover and seems to be quite popular. We also have quite a few people who leave and return. If there is a break in service of less than 90 days, we treat them as though they never left (vacation accruals, benefits). After 90 days, they're back to square one. The only exception is their pension benefit. We always return them to the pension plan immediately w/o a waiting period, although their employer contribution amount (based on longevity) is reset. ------------------ Good Luck!!! Sheila K 8^) 602 683-1013 Sheila K 8^)
John A Posted March 30, 2000 Posted March 30, 2000 Does the answer change if the "part-time employee" was employed from a temp agency, and then was hired away from the temp agency by the employer?
Guest CLKeown Posted March 31, 2000 Posted March 31, 2000 Does the answer change if the "part-time employee" was employed from a temp agency, and then was hired away from the temp agency by the employer? Simple question - variable answer. It really depends upon the employer's policies. Occasionally, as Sheila stated, when dealing with a hire through a placement agency on a temp-to-perm basis, the date they starting working at the firm is the "hire date" used. However, while I have seen that done, the reality is that more often than not the employer will still use the day you starting being paid by that employer as your hire date. In some cases the employer will still put the employee on a 90-day probationary period. This is especially true when the individual starts as a temporary employee (with no perm placement agreement) and then the employer decides to hire them as a permanent, regular employee. Hope this helps. Carole K.
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