Guest cde Posted June 5, 2003 Posted June 5, 2003 I don't understand. Why is a withdrawing employer allocated a share of the reallocated unfunded vested benefits of a multi-employer pension plan? This situation occurs under the presumptive method of computing withdrawal liability. The withdrawing employer is already allocated a share of the plan's unfunded vested benefits. It seems to me that the withdrawing employer is assessed twice for amounts that are uncollectible. I have another question dealing with employers who have withdrawn and are expected to make payments on the schedule. Shouldn't the unfunded vested benefit liabilites be adjusted to take into account these expected payments? Can anyone enlighten me?
Recommended Posts
Create an account or sign in to comment
You need to be a member in order to leave a comment
Create an account
Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!
Register a new accountSign in
Already have an account? Sign in here.
Sign In Now