mal Posted August 21, 2003 Posted August 21, 2003 A union client called and asked questions relating to his negotiation of a "stand alone" contract. The union is in the construction industry and its plan is a multiemployer arrangement. However, the contract in question is negotiated with one large company that employs several members of the union. At some point in the past, the company agreed to contribute to the union's multiemployer db plan on behalf of its member/employees. The db plan calculates a person's retirement benefit by multiplying the years of credited and partial service by a dollar amount ($90). Based on the usual contribution amount of roughly $4.00 per hour, a person needs to work approximately 300 hours to earn 1/4 credit. Now the problem... When the union negotiated this stand-alone agreement several years ago, the parties agreed to put only 20 cents per hour into the plan. This means a person who works 2200 hours per year will never have sufficient contributions to earn even a 1/4 credit. Is this a situation where the trustees of the plan could return the contributions under a "mistake of fact/law" theory? Has the union breached its duty of fair representation by negotiating such a deal? Wouldn't this arrangement violate the IRC/ERISA vesting and benefit accrual rules? I'm quite frankly not even sure where to begin on this mess.
Guest BenefitsLawyer Posted August 21, 2003 Posted August 21, 2003 I'm not clear on how the benefit is calculated--is it calculated on the basis of the amount of the contributions paid? Or is it just that, at contributions of $4.00 per hour, an employee would need to work about 300 hours for the plan to receive enough in contributions to pay for the $90 benefit? And I'm also not clear on whether this is really a vesting problem--I don't think vesting can be tied to the amount of the contributions paid by the employer. Bearing in mind my confusion about the way the benefit is calculated, and whether this is a vesting problem, here are some thoughts. (And I agree--this is one of those "where do I start" problems!!) 1. What does the trust agreement say about who determines the benefit? If the trustees determine the benefit, they may be able to create a special reduced benefit for these employees, with the reduced benefit calcuated actuarially to reflect the much-reduced contribution level. 2. Do the trustees have a set of "minimum standards" for employer participation in the plan? Some multiemployer plan trustees have adopted such minimum standards for precisely the reason outlined in your post--to get the plan out of the problem created when a union negotiates a contract with a contribution level that is insufficient to support the standard package of benefits. 3. If this is a vesting problem, there was a fair amount of litigation back in the 90's about plans that had vesting schedules that resulted in very small percentages of the participants ever vesting--I think a number of the lawsuits related to the Alaska pipeline. My recollection is that the participants were not successful in convincing courts that the trustees had violated any fiduciary duty by adopting those vesting schedules.
MGB Posted August 21, 2003 Posted August 21, 2003 mal, It sounds like you, or whoever is providing you this information, is mixing two different subjects together. The contribution rate (4.00/hr or 20 cents/hour) and the calculation of the benefit amount (90 per year of service) probably are not linked in anyway whatsoever. Dividing one by the other should not have anything to do with calculating a year of service. There should be a completely separate definition of what constitutes a year of service that is based on hours worked. Example: Let's say it is defined as 2200 hours in a calendar year. A person works exactly 2200 hours and there is a contribution of 20 cents/hour or 440 dollars. For this $440 they receive 90 per month at normal retirment age for life. There is no connection between the 90 per month at retirement and the 20 cents.
mal Posted August 22, 2003 Author Posted August 22, 2003 I understand the confusion... All of the DB plans I work with are multiemployer and set up as a "percentage of contribution" arrangement. That is, 1000 hours of service would earn you a benefit equal to a percentage of your contributions. However, this is a DB plan in which a certain level of contributions earns you either a partial or full credit. Approximately $1,200 in contributions earns you a 1/4 credit for the year. When a participant retires, the administrator multiples the total "credits" by a predetermined amount... roughly $90. Thus a man with 30 years of uninterupted employment should have a monthly benefit of $2,700. The problem in this case is that the union negotiated an hourly contribution rate that will never allow a member with 2200 hours of service to accrue a benefit. It is almost as if the hours worked are irrelevant. The member essentially has to accrue sufficent contributions to "buy" the credit.
RTK Posted August 22, 2003 Posted August 22, 2003 I still do not understand the link between contributions and (full or partial) credited service under the plan. Nonetheless, I do not believe that a plan can determine the number of hours of service credited (used for year of service credit for vesting and year of participation credit for benefit accrual) by the amount of contribution paid for an hour (or for that matter the rate of pay for an hour) without violating vesting and benefit accrual requirements. This is different than the actual amount of benefits accrued for a given level of contributions.
KJohnson Posted August 22, 2003 Posted August 22, 2003 I think you are stuck with 1,000 hours for eligibility and vesting, but I think that you can require more than 1,000 hours during an accrual computation period to credit the employee with a full benefit accrual unit (i.e. a full "year of participation" for benefit accrual computation purposes), so long as an employee who is credited with at least 1,000 Hours of Services is credited with a partial benefit accrual unit that is at least equal to a ratable portion of a full accrual unit. See See 2530.200b-1 and 2530.204-2c. Thus I think you must give someone with over 1,000 hours at least a "ratable" portion of a year of service for benefit accrual purposes. However, how you would determine a "ratable" potion when you are actually tying what is a "full year" to a contribution rate is beyond me. I think I am with RTK that I am not really sure this works.
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