Guest consult Posted May 18, 2005 Posted May 18, 2005 The IRS EZ Instructions say to file a final form upon termination/distribution of assets, even if a 5500 has never been required for a plan during its lifetime... Does anyone know the reasoning behind this, and if anyone is actually doing it??
Belgarath Posted May 18, 2005 Posted May 18, 2005 I can't say what the reasoning might be, but yes, every TPA I know does it, 'cause it's required.
Bird Posted May 18, 2005 Posted May 18, 2005 We've prepared filings in the few cases where this has been applicable. I'd bet that there is widespread non-compliance (without consequence) considering all of the broker-sold prototypes out there. Ed Snyder
JanetM Posted May 18, 2005 Posted May 18, 2005 Plus that gets the statute of limitations running by filing a schedule P for the final year. The assets could be found in personal or bank audit. JanetM CPA, MBA
Bird Posted May 18, 2005 Posted May 18, 2005 The assets could be found in personal or bank audit. I seriously doubt that an auditor doing a personal return will ask - "Oh, and did you file a final 5500-EZ?" As noted, we do prepare the filings as required, and am not advocating non-fling, but I would love to hear of just one instance where someone got caught and actually paid a penalty for non-fling. The department that would assess non-filing penalties has absolutely no way to know of the non-fling "event." (What's a "bank audit"?) Ed Snyder
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