Guest Grumpy456 Posted October 16, 2007 Posted October 16, 2007 A 409A plan requires participants to elect future payments in the form of a lump sum or installment (over 5 or 10 years). The plan contains a reservation of amendment clause permitting the employer (the so-called "service recipient") to amend the plan. Can the employer unilaterally require payment in the form of a lump sum, even with respect to amounts already deferred to the plan, without violating 409A? Does it matter whether any of the benefits are so-called "grandfathered benefits", i.e., pre-409A benefits? Thanks so much for your help.
QDROphile Posted October 16, 2007 Posted October 16, 2007 Before December 31, 2007, in accordance with transition rule. Do you care if grandfathered amounts remain grandfathered?
Steelerfan Posted October 16, 2007 Posted October 16, 2007 Can the employer unilaterally require payment in the form of a lump sum, even with respect to amounts already deferred to the plan, without violating 409A? Some plans require that an amendment not reduce any material rights under a plan. I'd say this change would take away a substantial tax benefit and thus would normally be a contractual violation w/o participant consent, otherwise the transition rule would allow it.
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