Guest bradfield Posted April 9, 2008 Posted April 9, 2008 If I had a security purchased in 2001 for a cost of $4,000, worthless and valued at zero on 1/1/07, and removed from the account as of 12/1/07, do I record a -4,000 on line g of the 5500EZ for 2007 even though it does not reflect in the change in value of the plan assets for the year 2007? Thanks.
WDIK Posted April 10, 2008 Posted April 10, 2008 1) Unrealized gains/losses are not reported anywhere on Form 5500-EZ. 2) Realized gains/losses are reported on line 10g of Form 5500-EZ. 3) CAUTION: Was the distribution made in accordance with plan terms, including any regarding in-kind distributions? 4) ANOTHER CAUTION: Was the asset value determined on an established market or by an independent appraiser? ...but then again, What Do I Know?
MarZDoates Posted August 21, 2008 Posted August 21, 2008 How do you report the change in value of a retirement account on the 5500 EZ? QPA, QKA
WDIK Posted August 21, 2008 Posted August 21, 2008 The information reported on the EZ does not reconcile the beginning versus end of year assets like Form 5500. I would refer you to the instructions for a description of the line entries. ...but then again, What Do I Know?
Bird Posted August 22, 2008 Posted August 22, 2008 WDIK is right, and it's an important point - beginning and ending assets don't reconcile with the income and expense items reported. We interpret 10g to include earnings and realized gains or losses; the instructions specifically say not to include unrealized gains or losses. I'm not sure what the point of reporting anything is if you're going to ignore the unrealized gains, but I guess somebody had their reasons...or not, could be they just assigned this to some stoners that they couldn't fire. Ed Snyder
Guest Dell Posted August 22, 2008 Posted August 22, 2008 As stated already, the 5500EZ makes no sense in this area. You still value the investments at FMV, you just dont show unrealized appreciation/depreciation. Remember, for 5500 purposes, realized gains/losses are based on "revalued cost" (FMV at beginning of year), not historical cost. Technically, you would not have any realized loss at 2007 year-end. The asset was already written down to zero, so there can be no realized loss. It's just that that write-down never appeared on the EZ. Seems odd, but the EZ form simply does not reconcile. In reality, it probably doesn't matter how you handle it.
MarZDoates Posted August 22, 2008 Posted August 22, 2008 WDIK is right, and it's an important point - beginning and ending assets don't reconcile with the income and expense items reported. We interpret 10g to include earnings and realized gains or losses; the instructions specifically say not to include unrealized gains or losses. I'm not sure what the point of reporting anything is if you're going to ignore the unrealized gains, but I guess somebody had their reasons...or not, could be they just assigned this to some stoners that they couldn't fire. Hee hee. Thank you all.... for the clarifications! I appreciate it. QPA, QKA
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