Guest Caffey Posted April 25, 2008 Posted April 25, 2008 I have a question about whether or not the following would meet the consistency rule. Employee is eligible for vision coverage but does not enroll. Spouse is eligible for vision coverage at his employer but does not enroll. Spouse loses employment status. Employee wants to enroll both employee and spouse on the vision plan. It seems a bit too "flexible" to let them both enroll now as his loss of employment did not result in him or her losing vision coverage under any plan. However, the regs seem to talk about "eligibility" rather than coverage status. I'd appreciate your thoughts on this issue. Thanks.
Guest SHaddon Posted April 25, 2008 Posted April 25, 2008 I would say no as there was no loss of coverage that would be consistent with the addition the employee is requesting. If the spouse had lost vision coverage, adding it would be consistent with that loss.
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