rocknrolls2 Posted April 21, 2009 Posted April 21, 2009 Company X buys the assets of the Z division of Company Y. Company Y maintains a profit sharing plan for its employees. Assume that Company X is willing to accept a spinoff of the portion of the assets of the Company Y profit sharing plan attributable to the Z division employees. Company Y proposes to transfer only the vested portion of the affected participants' acccount balances. Does this result in a violation of a qualification requirement?
rcline46 Posted April 21, 2009 Posted April 21, 2009 See IRC 411(a)(11) (I think). Balances after spinoff must be the same as before spinoff, and vesting is not mentioned.
jpod Posted April 21, 2009 Posted April 21, 2009 Per 414(l) the balances under the 2 plans combined must be the same after the spinoff as before. Does that mean you can keep the non-vested portion in the transferor plan? How will that work? How will the employees less than 100% vested ever become vested in their non-vested balances? Maybe the intent is to spin-off the accounts only of those employees who are 100% vested, or to transfer only the accounts which are 100% vested (e.g., if the plan is a 401k with separate profit sharing accounts subject to a vesting schedule). The other accounts stay in the transferor plan, if an employee takes a distribution the non-vested portion is forfeited; otherwise it is forfeited after a 5-year break.
QDROphile Posted April 21, 2009 Posted April 21, 2009 Please don't tell us that someone had the bright idea to keep the unvested balance with the expectation of capturing forfeitures.
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