Ken Davis Posted June 24, 2009 Posted June 24, 2009 Does the E'ee have a legally binding right to deferred comp in the following situation. E'er promises to pay E'ee $xx if E'ee works two more years. The payment is due to be paid the day after the two-year period has passed. If E'ee quits before the two year period has passed, he/she receives nothing. Neither E'er nor E'ee can change the amount of, timing of, or E'ee rights to the payment. Thanks, Ken Davis
Just Me Posted June 24, 2009 Posted June 24, 2009 Yes. A legally binding right exists even it if is contingent on future services.
david rigby Posted June 24, 2009 Posted June 24, 2009 Hey, I'm not a lawyer, but doesn't the question of "legally binding" require analysis of the context? Is there a contract? Is it in writing? Etc. I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
Guest gaham Posted June 24, 2009 Posted June 24, 2009 Based on the facts as described by Mr. Davis, it certainly appears to be a legally binding promise to pay deferred compensation. It doesn't matter that there is substantial risk of forfeiture. From a pure contract law standpoint it doesn't have to be in writing; however, it obviously does need to be in writing from a 409A/ERISA standpoint. We shouldn't muddy the waters; this is a pretty clear one.
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