Madison71 Posted April 1, 2010 Posted April 1, 2010 Can someone explain this to me a little more in detail? If an employee irrevocably elects not to participate in the plan by signing some sort of waiver, how are they treated for nondiscrimination purposes, etc? Would they be included in an ADP Test, 410(b)? Why would someone irrevocably elect not to participate? Employer wants to give participant the option of participating in the plan or giving more money. Not sure why an employer would want to do that considering tax ramifications unless compensation increase is less than the benefit? Any insight would be greatly appreciated! Thank you!
Madison71 Posted April 1, 2010 Author Posted April 1, 2010 Can someone explain this to me a little more in detail? If an employee irrevocably elects not to participate in the plan by signing some sort of waiver, how are they treated for nondiscrimination purposes, etc? Would they be included in an ADP Test, 410(b)? Why would someone irrevocably elect not to participate? Employer wants to give participant the option of participating in the plan or giving more money. Not sure why an employer would want to do that considering tax ramifications unless compensation increase is less than the benefit? Any insight would be greatly appreciated!Thank you! I'm Sorry this is in wrong section...meant 401(k)/Profit Sharing. Going to move it there.
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