masteff Posted June 21, 2011 Posted June 21, 2011 So we hired someone and between management and headhunters, the phrase "beginning with your first year of employment" was used in the offer letter. I'm curious to hear what everyone's first take on that phrase is... what is the date or point in time on which that phrase is triggered? (Note: the phrase actually got used twice and the intent was clearer there so it was then applied consistent w/ that. And I've already given feedback to management so hopefully they modify the phrase in their next offer.) Kurt Vonnegut: 'To be is to do'-Socrates 'To do is to be'-Jean-Paul Sartre 'Do be do be do'-Frank Sinatra
oriecat Posted June 22, 2011 Posted June 22, 2011 I'd say that applies from date of hire until the first anniversary, otherwise it should say beginning after your first year of employment.
masteff Posted June 23, 2011 Author Posted June 23, 2011 Thanks for the feedback, oriecat. We did finally interpret it as you did: the year beginning on date of hire and ending on first anniversary. I avoided specifics above so I wouldn't sway anyone's interpretation, but part of the ambiguity in this case came from the particular benefit it pertained to... our vacation policy uses the phrase "at completion of X years". The problem/trick when granting exceptions to a policy is putting aside the policy's wording and looking solely at the exception's wording. Kurt Vonnegut: 'To be is to do'-Socrates 'To do is to be'-Jean-Paul Sartre 'Do be do be do'-Frank Sinatra
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