Guest Shrek'sconfused Posted August 23, 2011 Posted August 23, 2011 Hello Day 1 - I exercise my NQSOs. I now own 50% of the company. Day 2 - We sell the company for $20m, $2 M being held back. My W-2 income reflects the $9m SP as the FMV of my NQSO (less exercise price). Year 2 - escrow is released. I think this is W-2 income. But the company's been acquired. Is this W-2 income? If so, can you provide authority? Who issues the W-2? The accquiring company doesn't want to.
jpod Posted August 24, 2011 Posted August 24, 2011 First, you are assuming that the shares you acquired upon exercise are worth $10MM, but that may not be the case depending upon the likelihood that you and the other shareholder(s) will actually receive the escrow. (For example, is the escrow subject to a difficult earn-out condition, or is there pending litigation which causes the true FMV to be less than $20MM?) Let's assume your shares are in fact worth $10MM. In that case, upon exercise of the NQSO you take a tax basis in the shares of $10MM. The $9MM you receive as sales proceeds on Day 2 is not compensation or reportable on a W-2. Similarly, anything you receive out of escrow is sales proceeds and not compensation.
Guest Shrek'sconfused Posted August 24, 2011 Posted August 24, 2011 Thank you. This is an indemnification escrow to protect buyer from possible litigation. I've seen it treated where the Gain of 9m - cost gets on W-2. Year 2 - the additional 1M makes it on the W-2 from the acquiring company. And then SP = CB on schedule D. I've found this to be the scenario used in several cases. Just looking for authority to explain why this is done. I'm thinking 409A, but not sure how I get there. First, you are assuming that the shares you acquired upon exercise are worth $10MM, but that may not be the case depending upon the likelihood that you and the other shareholder(s) will actually receive the escrow. (For example, is the escrow subject to a difficult earn-out condition, or is there pending litigation which causes the true FMV to be less than $20MM?)Let's assume your shares are in fact worth $10MM. In that case, upon exercise of the NQSO you take a tax basis in the shares of $10MM. The $9MM you receive as sales proceeds on Day 2 is not compensation or reportable on a W-2. Similarly, anything you receive out of escrow is sales proceeds and not compensation.
jpod Posted August 24, 2011 Posted August 24, 2011 Payment received in exchange for stock from the buyer is a capital transaction, whether it occurs five years or five minutes after exercising the stock option. IN no way should any amount received from buyer be treated as W-2 under these circumstances. 409A is irrelevant.
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