ERISA-Bubs Posted December 19, 2011 Posted December 19, 2011 Under certain corrections under 2008-113, an employee is required to repay amounts erroneously paid to the employee, including interest. The correction procedure specifically says the employee should have a legally binding right to the amount that had been erroneously paid, but doesn't say what happens to the interest. Does the employer just get to keep this amount? I realize that the penalties under 409A fall on the employee, but I fail to see why the employer should benefit from the failure.
XTitan Posted December 21, 2011 Posted December 21, 2011 In the land of the theoretical, if the company advances cash to an employee and the employee pays it back, it's technically a loan. To avoid an interest-free loan, you have to use a real interest rate and have the employee pay real interest. In this light, the interest isn't a windfall. On the whole, I'd rather pay a little interest on the advance payment than have full 409A violation on my entire balance. - There are two types of people in the world: those who can extrapolate from incomplete data sets...
Just Me Posted January 9, 2012 Posted January 9, 2012 Under certain corrections under 2008-113, an employee is required to repay amounts erroneously paid to the employee, including interest. The correction procedure specifically says the employee should have a legally binding right to the amount that had been erroneously paid, but doesn't say what happens to the interest. Does the employer just get to keep this amount? I realize that the penalties under 409A fall on the employee, but I fail to see why the employer should benefit from the failure. Yup.
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