Guest JM123 Posted April 30, 2012 Posted April 30, 2012 Can anyone confirm my understanding that a mass withdrawal is the only way a previously withdrawn employer can be held responsible for increased withdrawal liability? Assume no calculation errors were made and that there was no obligation to contribute following the complete withdrawal.
Effen Posted May 1, 2012 Posted May 1, 2012 I would agree. However, make sure the original calculation was not just an estimate. It is possible the fund estimated they would not have a liability, however when the actual calcuation was done, it turned out they did. In general, once the number is determined, it shouldn't change unless there is a mass w/drawal. The material provided and the opinions expressed in this post are for general informational purposes only and should not be used or relied upon as the basis for any action or inaction. You should obtain appropriate tax, legal, or other professional advice.
Guest JM123 Posted May 1, 2012 Posted May 1, 2012 I would agree. However, make sure the original calculation was not just an estimate. It is possible the fund estimated they would not have a liability, however when the actual calcuation was done, it turned out they did.In general, once the number is determined, it shouldn't change unless there is a mass w/drawal. Thanks for the input. It's the actual liability, not estimated. If there is a mass withdrawal, the adjustments for de minimis and 20-year provisions won't affect us because of the amount of the liability, but I suppose our allocable share of the plan's UVB at the time of the mass w/d could increase.
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