Fielding Mellish Posted March 2, 2016 Posted March 2, 2016 Defined benefit plan. Participant has 9 years of vesting service. Plan has 5 year cliff vesting. Participant is unmarried and dies without having ever listed a beneficiary with the Plan. He does have several children, though. But, again, never filled out a form naming any of them as a beneficiary. Plan administrator is saying no benefits are payable. Is that correct? If not, to whom should benefits be paid? And when? And in what amount? Assume the Plan document is silent. Thanks. You cannot bash in the head of an American citizen without written permission from the State Department.
jpod Posted March 2, 2016 Posted March 2, 2016 It is possible that in a DB plan the only pre-retirement death benefit is a QPSA for the surviving spouse and if there is no surviving spouse, nobody gets nothin'.
david rigby Posted March 2, 2016 Posted March 2, 2016 Very unlikely the document is silent. - Does it define a "pre-retirement survivor" benefit? Does it say "surviving spouse"? - If benefit is defined payable to "the surviving spouse", the correct answer might be "no benefits are payable". But, if the participant is divorced, watch out for a QDRO. I'm a retirement actuary. Nothing about my comments is intended or should be construed as investment, tax, legal or accounting advice. Occasionally, but not all the time, it might be reasonable to interpret my comments as actuarial or consulting advice.
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