401(k)athryn Posted May 31, 2018 Share Posted May 31, 2018 Client took a loan, which subsequently was deemed. Five years later, he paid it back so he could take another loan. The client is 59 ½ and tried to take an in-service distribution of the remaining account value. He was denied the full distribution amount due to the deemed amount that was paid back not being eligible for in-service withdrawal. Has anyone heard of this before? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ETA Consulting LLC Posted May 31, 2018 Share Posted May 31, 2018 Nope. Good Luck! CPC, QPA, QKA, TGPC, ERPA Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Bri Posted May 31, 2018 Share Posted May 31, 2018 Sounds like vendor/platform issues, perhaps? I usually tell them what they've got coded wrong in their systems, when explaining if they're doing it wrong. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Pam Shoup Posted May 31, 2018 Share Posted May 31, 2018 I have not heard of it. However, does the plan document have any language that says that in-service distributions can't be taken from after tax money? That may be what the vendor is looking at. Pamela L. (Bobersky) Shoup CEBS, RPA, QKA AMI Benefit Plan Administrators, Inc. 100 Terra Bella Drive Youngstown, Ohio 44505 800-451-2865 www.amibenefit.com Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ETA Consulting LLC Posted May 31, 2018 Share Posted May 31, 2018 1 hour ago, PamB said: However, does the plan document have any language that says that in-service distributions can't be taken from after tax money? That may be what the vendor is looking at. That wouldn't make any sense. The repayment of a deemed loan doesn't change any of the withdrawal rights. It merely creates an after-tax basis in the account that funded the loan. Hence, if a person takes a loan from the deferral account and it is deemed, that person has a right to repay the loan. Doing so would actually create an after-tax basis in the deferral account. If the account wasn't subject to a withdrawal restriction (e.g. 59-1/2), then the loan wouldn't have been deemed distributed in the first place; it would've become an actual distribution after non-payment. Good Luck! CPC, QPA, QKA, TGPC, ERPA Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
401(k)athryn Posted June 4, 2018 Author Share Posted June 4, 2018 Thanks everyone. I forgot to mention that this is a 403(b) account. It is not a plan that I administer, but I expect that it might be a "policy loan". Do you think this makes a difference with regard to withdrawal restrictions? I realize that I may only be able to help an advisor figure this out of I have a copy of the loan policy. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
401(k)athryn Posted June 4, 2018 Author Share Posted June 4, 2018 Pam - I will check on the possibility of the vendor restricting this money from being available for an in-service withdrawal because it is an after-tax source. That could be it! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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