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Question 144: Dr. V owns 100% of a P.A. (VPA) and is its sole employee. VPA pays Dr. V a salary and also makes a contribution to a SEP for her. All of VPA's services are performed for another medical corporation (SPA). There's no affiliated service group here because VPA does not have an ownership interest in SPA. However, if Dr. V personally purchases a 10% interest in SPA, would that create an affiliated service group between VPA and SPA because of attribution from Dr. V to VPA? Would VPA then have to make a SEP contribution for all eligible SPA employees? |
Answer: Yes to both questions. |
Answers are provided as general guidance on the subjects covered in the question and are not provided as legal advice to the questioner or to readers. Any legal issues should be reviewed by your legal counsel to apply the law to the particular facts of this and similar situations.
The law in this area changes frequently. Answers are believed to be correct as of the posting dates shown. The completeness or accuracy of a particular answer may be affected by changes in the law (statutes, regulations, rulings, court decisions, etc.) that occur after the date on which a particular Q&A is posted.
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