We have a 401(k) plan with a participant who died last year. She has a sizeable amount in the plan (over $200k), and as far as the sponsor knows, she had no will and both her husband and daughter predeceased her. They believe she has some adult grandchildren, but so far none has contacted them. I suggested they contact one of the grandchildren to find out the status of her estate. But the question arose as to what we do if no one asks for the money. And also, what happens in a couple years when the participant would have turned 70-1/2 (RMD)?

Let's say husband and wife own 50% each of Company A. They also have some ownership in other companies, which could form a potential Brother-Sister Controlled Group. Would you consider them both as 100% owners when determining the if the controlled group relationship exists for a Brother-Sister Controlled Group, because of attribution, or would they just be considered 50% owners?

The ACP test fails. Corrective distributions will apply. If the match is made after the plan year end, is it acceptable to say the earnings for the corrective distributions are zero?

Plan is safe harbor non-elective with a 100% of 2% non-safe harbor match. A rehired employee was not given the opportunity to defer for 2017. I know that the fix for the deferral piece is 50% of the 3% plus the 3% safe harbor. But what about the match piece? I understand the regs to be 2% match. The employee's missed deferral was 3% (because of safe harbor non-elective), so the match is 100% of 2%?

We have two companies that are only a little bit related -- in the 10-20% range. So they definitely wouldn't be considered a single employer under 409A. However, when certain employees leave company A to go to company B, they continue to participate in company A's nonqualified plan. I can't find any reason why this is a problem -- is there anything I might be missing?

Can Plan expenses be paid out of a Cash Balance Plan's Forfeiture Account (similar to a 401(k))? For instance, TPA fees?

Plan has this eligibility: Age 20-1/2, 1 YOS (1,000 hrs). Entry date: First day of plan year following. That's it. On the surface it seems it violates the 18 months rule, but I am half-remembering that the age 20-1/2 aspect somehow buys the plan an extra 6 months.

If terminating due to acquisition/plan termination, does the plan need to provide 30 days notice?

A Participant went online and changed from 10% to 2%. Should the excess be forfeited as a mistake of fact and the Participant made whole outside the plan? Should it be distributed to the Participant as an excess, with the Plan issuing a 1099?