Hmmm - I'm not so sure about that. 1.72(p)1, Q&A-7 refer you to the "tracing rules" in 163(h)(3)(B). As I read those rules, if you can't prove that the funds were actually used in "acquiring, constructing, or substantially improving" the qualified residence, then I don't necessarily think it qualifies. So, if you buy a house for $200,000, and take a mortgage loan from the bank for $180,000, and said loan is secured by the residence, and you additionally take a $50,000 loan from your plan, and use $20,000 for the difference, and then spend the other $30,000 on a trip to Monaco, do you think this qualifies? More to the point, do you think the IRS would agree? Just curious.