At this point I am thoroughly confused by this thread (which is itself confused partly because the Code and IRS guidance are not all that clear), but I'm pretty sure that 416(g)(4)(H)(i)'s reference to a CODA that satisfies 401(k)(12) means a CODA that does not need to test ADP because it satisfies either the nonelective or match safe harbor. 416(g)(4)(H)(ii)'s reference to 401(m)(11) and (12) isn't meant, I don't think, to say that you can only get out of top-heavy with the match safe harbor, but rather that if you do use the match for 401(k)(12), then the match needs to also satisfy (m)(11) or (12). Rev. Rul. 2004-13 perpetuates, unfortunately, what was a confusing statutory phrasing in the first place by including only a match in its example. Maybe the author of the Rev. Rul. didn't want to take any chances himself, given that he was providing guidance in absence of regs.
Anyway, my guess would be that you are not top-heavy based on your hypothetical facts.