Anyone: Please tell me why a QACA - any QACA - does not automatically comply with the requirements for being a EACA. Disregard cosmetic issues like the EACA provisions call for a "EACA notice" and the QACA provisions call for a "QACA" notice. Yes, I know that only a EACA can have a refund feature, but tell me why a QACA fails to qualify for having a refund feature. If you cannot, then separate notices would end up saying the same thing, regardless of their name, so why not have one combined notice? It's true, escalation must start no lower than 3% for a QACA (if there is escalation), but that doesn't violate the EACA rules. Ditto the 10% maximum on escalated deferrals - that doesn't violate the EACA rules. The boilerplate regulatory uniformity requirements look the same to me for both a EACA and a QACA. The character of the automatic contributions as "safe harbor" contributions, and the minimum amount of such contributions for a QACA, all those things do not violate the EACA requirements. A QACA safe harbor notice will comply with the EACA notice rules, unless you can point out to me where I err. (None of this applies if the plan has a "maybe" QACA, which is not a QACA until the midyear amendment amends the plan into a definite QACA. My question deals with a plan that has a QACA on the first and every remining day of the plan year.)
As you might have guessed, I think that the "pairing" of "EACA and QACA" is to make drafters comfortable with having a refund feature, but that such pairing is not technically necessary. But I am open to the possibility that I am overlooking something.