I have a plan with an owner and a child, who would both be eligible. The owner only wants the plan for themselves, but I am concerned about meeting 401a26, mainly the "at least 2" part of it. Is there an exception since it is only owners/family or do I need to include both the owner and child.

I need some direction...

Here is the situation: Plan A and B are part of a Controlled Group. Each plan on passes Coverage.

Plan A: Match formula is 100% up to 3%

Plan B: Match formula is 100% up to 4% for Location X and 50% up to 10% for location Y

Since there are differenct formulas within Plan B a BRF test is needed. When running the BRF test, do I only consider the employees of Plan B? Or do I have to considered all employees in the controlled group.

I have always been under the impression that once a plan passes coverage ALL discrimination testing is done on the plan basis not the controlled group basis.

Any thoughts would be greatly appreciated as well as regulations for reference!

Does anyone know when the new, promised PPA regs (300+ pages?) will be released?

Company A's stock was held mostly by another public company. On June 26, 2009, the assets of Company A are acquired by a group of investors that are unrelated to the previous stockholders and a new company is formed to continue Company A's operations. The employees transfer to the new company and it's business as usual.

Company A sponsors a Safe Harbor Nonelective plan. 401 (k) contributions to the plan ceased on June 26th and no SH nonelective contributions have been made to the plan for 2009. The plan has not yet been terminated and the new company does not want to sponsor the plan. The new company however would like to create a Safe Harbor Match plan.

Since this is an asset acquisition, it appears Company A could terminate its plan (assuming all required contributions have been made) and distribute assets to participants, even though the same participants are now covered under the new company's (k) plan. I just want to make sure I'm understanding the successor plan rules correctly.

Does anyone know what the earliest retirement dates are that a participant in CalPERS or STRS can receive "unreduced" benefits, for purposes of electing the 457(b) catch-up?

In some of our U.S. qualified defined benefit plans, we have forfeiture provisions along the lines of:

In the event that all or any portion of the distribution payable upon a Participant's Mandatory Commencement Date or upon the date that payments must commence under the Plan to a beneficiary cannot be paid because of the Plan Benefits Administrator's inability to locate such person, after diligent efforts to determine such person's location, such person's benefit shall be forfeited and shall be used to reduce the cost of the Plan. In the event that such Participant or beneficiary is subsequently located, such benefit shall be restored, and payment retroactive to the applicable date shall be made.

The above seems to be consistent with Treasury Regulation 1.411(a)-4(a)(6) which I've cut and pasted below:

6) Lost beneficiary; escheat. In the case of a benefit which is

payable, merely because the benefit is forfeitable on account of the

inability to find the participant or beneficiary to whom payment is due,

provided that the plan provides for reinstatement of the benefit if a

claim is made by the participant or beneficiary for the forfeited

benefit. In addition, a benefit which is lost by reason of escheat under

applicable state law is not treated as a forfeiture.

We've never forfeited a benefit but for some participants we've exhausted our internal efforts at finding them (including locator services) and are preparing to use either the IRS or SSA letter forwarding service as our final effort...before declaring such participants as lost. We would not escheat the benefit.

Questions...

If a benefit is declared forfeited, may we 1) remove the participant from PBGC participant rolls, 2) remove the participant's liability from the Plan (and remove the participant from 5500 counts), etc.

Our plans are large and the number and average benefit size of the group that would be forfeited would be relatively immaterial from the perspective of the plan's liability.

I know the DOL doesn't necessarily agree with the IRS/Treasury on forfeiture...but most commentary I've read indicates that since the participant or beneficiary will be paid the benefit if they "pop up later", then...."what's the problem"...

I am just looking for any formal/informal guidance from any regulatory bodies on this topic (other than the Treasury regulation itself) that someone may know of and seek the experience of others who may have forfeiture provisions and actually have forfeited benefits under such provisions.

Thanks for any help.

Does the Federal Mental Health Parity Law apply to outpatient behavioral health services if a plan has outpatient limits on Chiropractor and short-term Therapy services like OT, PT?

Facts (simplified):

Calendar Year Plan terminates 8/31/08

All assets distributed by 10/31/08

Valuation Date: 12/31/08

I don't believe I am required to change to a BOY-Val. If I don't, is there any reason I can't just show zeroes (0's) on the Schedule B since my Fair Market Value of assets is $0 and my benefit liabilities as of 12/31/08 is $0 too ? The only reason I question it is that I had an accrual for 2008 which would produce a normal cost but on 12/31/08 all benefits and liabilities are $0. I don't think it would make sense to show a normal cost on the Schedule SB if all assets & liabilities are paid out before 12/31/08. Any thoughts ?

Is this another "no current guidance" question ? If so, opinions are still appreciated.

Plan allows employees to pay their portion of health premiums pre-tax. The company pays 100% of health premiums for 65 out of 115 employees. The remaining 50 ees utilize the POP and pay their portion pre-tax. I have read that the participant count should be 50, and that makes sense, but I cannot find anything definitive.

Also, I assume the 100/120 large plan rule would apply if the 115 count was used?

Any insights would be appreciated, I am from the Pension side and the Welfare rules do not seem as straight forward.

Thanks.

A participant received a hardship distribution which he used for a non hardship purpose.

The distribution will be repaid to the plan.

Are the repaid funds considered "after-tax" contributions in the participants account?

Under 404© what requirements, if any, are there when a plan sponsor changes the investment options available to participants based on the advice of an Investment Consultant?

If we have a plan that previously covered only the owner, and then a rank-and-file employee enters the plan, but the plan is frozen before there are any benefit accruals for the plan year, is the plan required to be PBGC-covered? The rank-and-file individual is still employed. There seems to be some indication that if the person did not accrue any benefits, they are not "covered". Any thoughts appreciated!

A small employer with 7 employees cannot find a copy of its profit sharing plan (adopted in 2004). Has anyone successfully corrected this type defect through the IRS Voluntary Correction Program? Rev. Proc. 2008-50 does not address it.

I know this has been discussed before, but...

If the Aftap is 75 w/o cb, and 71 with cb... there doesn't have to be a deemed reduction of credit balances, correct?

however,

if the Aftap is 81 w/o cb and 79 with cb... there is a deemed reduction of cb to get the aftap to at least 80, correct?

I am an S Corp owner who just set up a simple K.

When I make my simple K contribution, do I write the check from the corp or my personal account?

Is the contribution subject to FICA?

On the W2, is the contribution amount included in Box1?

Thanks,

Jerry

I am relatively new to the field of Non Discrimination Testing.

The 2009 limits for determining a key and HCE are $160,000 and $110,000 respectively.

My understanding is that for a plan year beginning 1/1/2009, determination of key employee will be based on the 2009 limit but for the HCE, I should lookback to the 2008 year limit of $105,000 (since my plan uses retro salaries). Am I correct or getting confused?

TIA.

I think I know the answer to this, but I'm having trouble finding anything to back up my theory.

We have an employer that will terminate their profit sharing effective August 1, 2009. They want to establish a SEP for 2009.

I understand that they can not use Form 5305 SEP if they maintain a qualified plan. Is it correct that by "maintain" another plan means to allocate contributions in a calendar year? If so, where can I find that in the regs?

So what I need to know....if we terminate the plan in 2009 and allocate no contributions in 2009 (but allocate gains and losses), can we use the Form 5305 SEP to establish a SEP for 2009? We will distribute the profit sharing plan assets in 2009.

Thank you.

I have seen different answers to this question -

Can an ACA (non-EACA or QACA) be added to an existing 401(k) mid-year? There is not a lot of literature devoted to the straight ACA!

Thanks for any responses!

A profit sharing plan will be tested for discrimination on a contributions basis under 401(a)(4) because the plan sponsor does not want to contribute the gateway. There are two tests:

(1) The ratio test that considers rate groups (based upon contribution rates) taking into consideration only the plan being tested and

(2) The overall average benefits rate test for the group being tested taking into consideration contributions allocated under certain other DC Plans.

Am I correct that conducting the average benefits rate test (2) on a benefits basis does not require a gateway contribution? That is, the gateway contribution is requried only if rate groups are to be determined on a benefits basis

Does anyone know the process/repercussions of "dissolving" a SIMPLE IRA plan and starting a 401k for your firm? Are participants left with their IRA and have to "start over" in the 401k? Common sense tells me they can't roll their SIMPLE balances into a new 401k but I can't find the information anywhere. Thanks!