Under what circumstances would a company have to apply for a number for a Nonqualified plan? and

Under what, if any, circumstances would there be backup withholding for a rabbi trust?

The IRS gave relief as to returns and minimum funding. does the same relief apply to the deadline for making profit sharing contributions?

Company has signifigant foreign operations employing ex pats. They would like to add an after tax provision to existing 401k plan ( 401k contributions are not viable as most of the income earned overseas not subject to American taxation up to a certain limit). Would it not be better to just add the Roth 401k? Does anyone have any experience with this type of arrangment?

I just don't know where to look to find this answer. If an employer provides health insurance to all employee on a non-contributory basis (the employer pays 100% of the premium), can the employees decline the coverage? If so, is there any discrimination issue for the employer since all employees would not be getting the same level of benefits and would also not be getting any cash in return for the rejected benefits?

(And I also want to know how to get a job with this employer!)

This client is a family owned business. Two shareholders, each owning 19%, are retired and receiving W-2 wages of $20,000 for consulting. However, there are no hours reported and they are not deferring.

This plan is failing the ADP test and if these two shareholders are included, the test will pass. One owner retired in 2000. The service requirement for eligibility is 6 months with no prorated hours requirement.

Any suggestions?

A common-law employee (non-owner) in a qualifed plan who is age 51 has been receiving SEPP's for less than five years. Now the employer sponsoring the plan has retired and wants to terminate the plan and disburse remaining assets to participants for direct rollover's, cash-outs, etc.

What impact will the possible plan termination have on the SEPP's already in progress with this employee? Will the plan termination be disallowed by IRS because of the SEPPs in progress or will the employee face retoactive IRS disqualification becasue the SEPP schedule is interrupted for reasons out of their control. OR can the SEPP's continue in the new IRA or plan receivng these assets to avoid possible disqualification.

Need some help in coordinating the proper course of events to be followed by both the employer wishing to terminate the plan and the employee facing this possiblity.

I have also posted on 'Sec 72(t) on the Net' as well.

Thanks in advance.

David

In this FAE DB plan, there is an incapacity retirement that provides an unreduced age 65 annuity (sla or J and S options--no lump sum) if one is at least age 40 with 10 or more years of service and meets one of the two methods of being deemed incapacitated at the date of termination. These two methods are 1) a SSA disability award indicates that the person was disabled on a date prior to termination or 2) the person meets/met the "plan" definition of incapacity at termination.

It would appear that it would consistent with the aforementioned final regulations to eliminate this type of retirement or alter the methods of being deemed incapacitated (remove the plan definition method and rely solely on the non-discretionary SSA method) if we amended the plan to do so by the end of this year.

We would like to do so but want to feel that such is consistent with the relevant regulatory guidance.

Trying to figure out how this "feature" of the plan is or is not an ancillary benefit that is otherwise not protected by the anti-cutback rule or is or is not a unpredictable contingent event benefit (as is a shutdown benefit) and thus potentially amendable out of the plan if done on or before 12-31-05 has been difficult.

ok, so there are some duplicates, but as my brother says, who really cares.

this one has 72 movies to identify.

for those that haven't downloaded #1, these are snapshots from different movies. the 'bodies' are missing (the clothes are still there). I guess you would describe it as The invisible man effect.

Besides, what else are you going to do on the weekend besieds watch football.

(well, ok ladies, but then 'WDIK' - I never married - oh wait, I don't watch that much football either - never mind)

Assume 2 separate employers, Subsidiary 1 and Subsidiary 2. Sub 1 and Sub 2 are wholly-owed subsidiaries of Parent and, therefore, are members of a controlled group.

Sub 1 and Sub 2 have adopted the same 401(k) plan. Sub 1 has a match, Sub 2 does not.

Sub 2 can't qualify as a SLOB because it has less than 50 employees.

My question is: Is there any way to treat Sub 1 and Sub 2 as separate plans for ADP/ACP testing? Both Sub 1 and Sub 2 can separately pass 410(b).

I'm pretty sure I know the answer is no . . . but it seems like we ought to be able to do this. Here's why: If Sub 2 did not adopt the Plan (i.e., Sub 2 had no plan), Sub 1 -- because Sub 1 can pass 410(b) on its own -- could go merrily on its way. But, because Sub 2 has in fact adopted the Plan and because Sub 2 has poor participation among its eligible employees, the HCEs are Sub 1 are going to cut-back in the amount they can defer. Thus, Sub 1 employees are in effect punished because eligibility under the Plan was extended to Sub 2 employees. File this under "no good deed goes unpunished".

Will appreciate your thoughts.

Thanks.

Can a health care provider provide health information about a patient to the patient's employer? The employer claims that it needs the employee/patient's information in connection with a first report of injury. I would appreciate all thoughts and thanks!

Participant under profit sharing plan owns life insurance policy in his individual account. Policy is whole life and has a cash surrender value. Participant designates spouse as beneficiary under insurance policy and under the plan. Participant dies; death benefit under policy is payable to the spouse.

Can the spouse rollover the death benefit to her IRA?

FAB 2004-02 gives administrators some relief in getting a missing participant's benefits out of a terminated dc plan. My question is whether the plan document has to specifically permit these kinds of distributions, or can a fiduciary rely completely on the FAB?

Hypothetical situation to make the question clear:

Top Heavy Plan has 100% match up to 3% of pay. All rank & file EEs defer 3% or more so the match satisfies their Top Heavy min.

There is one HCE (non-Key) who does not defer. He has to get a 3% Profit Sharing as a Top Heavy Min.

Does that then create a requirement to fund rank & file an additional Profit Sharing 3% since the 3% to HCE only would not pass coverage and non-discrimination on the Profit Sharing as a stand alone "piece"?

Thanks

An individual was a partner in a partnership that maintained a 401k plan. The individual leaves the partnership in 2004 and establishes his own Sole Prop. The Sole Prop adopts its own 401k plan. Can I count as compensation for the Sole Prop plan purposes the Schedule C and the partnership income allocated to this individual?

In 2004 a 401k plan that was and still is participant directed, changed investment platforms, and participant investment elections were mapped to like funds.

The auditor is saying this is a reportable transaction, since "the participants did not have a choice as to where their monies were invested".

I disagree.

before giving all the answer away, please give others a chance to solve as well

If a plan merges with an existing plan and as a result are accepting a better vesting schedule, what vesting schedule would any terminated employees be required to follow? Would they follow the schedule they were on at the time of the termination, or would they advance to the new schedule?

particiapnt signs election form for lump sum (<$2200)

particpant then dies over labor day before a check is actually cut.

now what? make check out to wife?

I have a takeover case where I need to do the 1-1-04 valuation (in a week!). The prior actuary changed the funding method and asset valuation method 1-1-2000. When the method was changed in 2000, the amortization period for the initial unfunded liability (or base due to change in funding method) was amortized over the wrong number of years. The old rule was used, 30 years minus the number of years the plan has been in effect, in stead of 10 years. Finally, the initial base did not consider the reconciliation account, so the balance test was off from day 1.

So, now I am trying to figure out what to do. I can match the prior valuation using the bad amortization period, etc. I think I have the choice of using the same method knowing that parts of the calculations are wrong or changing to essentially the same method. But if I choose to change to essentially the same method and somehow correct the prior errors, I start the 4 year clock ticking again for a change in the future. I don't think I can change to another method altogether because it has been changed in one of the four preceding plan years. Is that right or do I get to ignore the four year rule because it is a takeover?

Any thoughts or comments are appreciated.

I have calculated the excise tax for delinquent deferrals from 2002 and 2003.

It is my understanding that if excise taxes are not paid by the last day of the 7th month after the affected tax years, additional penalties are due.

I need a second opinion . . .

As I read the instructions for the 5330, it appears our client should file the 5330s for each individual year, and pay the excise taxes we calculated.

Additional penalties MAY be imposed later on if the IRS determines the client did not have good reason for filing 2 - 3 years late . It is therefore necessary to include with these payments correspondence that gives a darned good reason for the failure to pay these excise taxes on their respective due dates (last day of 7th month after the end of each tax year).

Am I understanding this correctly?

Thanks!