abanky

This might be a stupid question... If the AOCI increases from the prior year is that good or bad?

1/1/2010 valuation date. 2009 Aftap 63% Currently, the 2010 aftap is at 59.6% not reflected in the assets are the contributions receivable to the 2009 plan year. Can I assume the receivables will be made and issue an aftap over 60% or do I have to freeze accruals until the contributions are made and then reissue an aftap? Thanks, Andrew

I think you have to combine them first then apply PD.

How does this sound... freeze the benefit at 1/1/2010, actuarially increase the benefit to 62 and throw in a actuarial equivalent age 60 ERB. Then create a future benefit that is slightly better than the formula they currently have.

Andy, Very good point... Got to love take over plans...

Perfect... those were both ideas I was thinking of. Thank you.

Ok, I have another scenario... maybe it's monday or maybe I'm just not that smart... Currently, Plan assumptions are: NRA: 60 Benefit 32% reduced for service less than 25 Accrual formula: Fractional based upon Service. What would be the best way to get this up to code?

doesn't that still lower the PVAB and FT? Is there any anti cutback issues?

is there anywhere that I can get retirement trend date sorted by field?

If a plan (for a chiropractor) was established in 2005 and has a nra of 55, didn't the nra need to be amended to at least 62?

Is there any good books out there that describe governmental db plans and required administration/notification/compliance?

I know this was talked about before, but i couldn't find the post. I have a Eoy CB plan where I allocate 100k, but because of PPA, I can only contribute 68k. How are people getting the funding close to the allocation amount?

Is my understanding of this correct? No tax advantage, no 401/410 testing... it has to be in writing... Basically its a promise to an employee or group of employees that upon their termination they will get x amount of dollars. Anything else?

does the plan currently allow lump sums?

I was under the impression that the hypothetical interest was to be a "market rate of interest". I think that’s what it says in the Erisa outline book, Chapter 6, Part C 4 a

If the plan has a large life insurance policy... do they continue to pay for that or let it expire?

If a cash balance plan has an AE of Preretirement mortality: none preretirement interest: 5% Postretirement mortality: 94 GAR postretirement interest: 5% Hypothetical interest 5% Does the plan have to amend both the AE and hypothetical interest or just the hypothetical interest?

50k

when was the plan effective? Any credit balances?

The plan had two categories for allocation, HCEs and NHCEs. The employee was a Nhce in 2008 and because of compensation became a HCE in 2009.

Getting back to this topic. Is there any accrual issue if say a nhce was getting 2% allocation each year than jumped into a HCE group which was say 57% each year?

That is all he asked about was a small plan.

You have 16 months after the first day of the beginning of the premium filing date. So for calendar year plans it's 4/30/2010. Once you calculated the Vested Funding Target, you can pay your premium. Most of my plans are eoy, so I have to wait until after 12/31/2009 to calculate that.

How much of a pain in the butt is this? Any guidance issued out there?

http://www.irs.gov/taxpros/actuaries/artic...d=97444,00.html these are a couple of the old EA 1 exams. Doesn't your er pay for your exams?