KimBoyd1105

The two-year rule begins on the date of the first deposit into the SIMPLE and includes deposits made within that two year period. Correct? I have a company that has a SIMPLE IRA. They purchased another company that sponsored a 401(k). They are terminating the SIMPLE plan and continuing the 401(k). If everyone with a balance in the SIMPLE plan first got deposits back in say 2007 then each year through 2015. I am not violating the above rule by rolling into the 401(k) qualified plan? Correct?

If a plan adds a match with a set formula mid year and begins deposits on a per payroll basis, but does NOT sign and execute the document - are the match contributions considered ineligible since the document was not properly executed and therefore Match contributions were not a feature of the plan? Can I get a citation for the answer? Can't seem to find it. In my opinion it is an operational and document failure. Thanks.