Folks, what I don't understand is this. The original contribution came from your payroll pre-tax (lets assume). You take a loan and repay the loan with after tax money.
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Then..... one day you retire and withdraw money from your account. There was no basis created for portion of the account that was a loan repayment - that amount gets taxed in the year you withdraw it.
Am I just not getting it? Wasn't this money double taxed? Little help?