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We have a client who mistakenly took his RMD from his multiple qualified plans from just one of the plans in 2017. Naturally the plan with the lowest RMD is the one from which he took the RMD. It is well past the 60 day rollover period. Is there anything that he can do to correct this issue so he doesn't have to take out almost double what he was required to take out?

It was an asset purchase. I think we were going on the premise that he could count his two years of service as a predecessor org, but we didn't believe he could avoid counting the service for the employees and that seems to be confirmed in this thread.

The plan sponsor of the new plan is the son, who is the new employer. He bought the practice from his father and is continuing to employ the employees of his father's practice.

A dentist had his dentist son working for him for two years as a 1099 independent contractor. He had a retirement plan and the all of his employees were covered. The son now wants to start his own plan and wants to have dad's employees wait until they satisfy the service requirement for him before entering his plan, however he wants to count the service as an independent contractor in order to participate in the plan. It would seem that if he counts his service that he would have to count the service for dad's employees under either family attribution or possibly ASG. Any thoughts on whether what he is trying to do is possible?