What does everyone thing of the following idea? Would it work?
A lot of clients are in the enviable position of not needing the income from the RMDs. Therefore they are continually looking for ways to defer or reduce minimum distributions.
Let's say a client, age 73, retires from his company in 2019 Prior to rolling the assets to an IRA he takes his 2019 401k RMD. He wont be subject to an IRA RMD until 2020.
Later in 2019, he sets up his own business (consulting, Uber Driver, app developer, etc) and establishes a one-person 401k and subsequently rolls his IRA in the newly established 401(k). It would appear to me that the owner (even though they own more than 5% of the business) would not be subject to RMDs until they separate from service
I believe this to be true due to section 401(a)(9)(C)(i)(l) "in the case of an employer is a 5% owner with respect the plan year ending in the calendar year in which the employee attains age 70 1/2...." In other words it seems language does not require for an ownership test each year
Thoughts?