We have a client who is a 5% owner through attribution and still working. He turned 70-1/2 in 2015. It's a 401k self directed account.
For reasons I can't explain, probably because the attribution wasn't coded correctly, he didn't receive RMDs.
Based on actual account balances RMDs for 2015, 2016, 2017 and 2018 have now been made without regard to earning or taking into account an offset for expected RMD.
The client is leaning toward filing VCP to request waiver of the excise tax.
Here are my questions:
1. How should I have calculated the RMD?
2. Should I have taken the expected RMD for the previous year into account when calculating the current RMD?
3. Is there any good examples or explanations on how to prepare the VCP filing? I think I can do it on 14568 and 14568-H but I am not sure.
Thanks for any light you can shed on this murky topic!