Guy on a Limb

So since this is an owner only plan you believe it is ok because it is not subject to the ERISA indicia of ownership requirement? Thank you!

The arguement is being made that 4980 says the transfer will reduce the reversion so you must have a reversion to have a transfer. I think, and designed the plan, to have reallocation. Then the question is "reallocate under which plan?" Do all benefits have to be first max'ed (reallocated) under the DB to then transfer whatever is left to the PS Plan? I don't think so but that is the follow up contention. I think once liabilities are satisfied it is dealer's choice. Thanks for your earler reply.

does the election between 1) excess asset revert & 2) excess assets are to be reallocated impact the ability to transfer an excess to a QRP?

If the Plan specifies reallocation of excess assets, does that prevent a transfer to the replacement plan? Which would mean an plan document election of a reversion would be required to have a transfer? Thank you